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Three User-Friendly and Easy-to-Install Prep4sureGuide CTPRP Exam Questions
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Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Sample Questions (Q170-Q175):
NEW QUESTION # 170
In the Defense in Depth approach, the 'Private internal' layer primarily utilizes ________ to secure sensitive data.
- A. continuous monitoring and behavioral analytics
- B. firewall and intrusion detection systems
- C. encryption and access controls
- D. data loss prevention methods
Answer: C
Explanation:
Encryption and access controls are fundamental security controls used at the 'Private internal' layer. These methods are critical for ensuring data integrity and confidentiality by preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information.
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which statement is TRUE regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the Cardholder Data Environment (CDE) in payment card processing?
- A. The Report on Compliance (ROC) provides the assessment results completed by a qualified security assessor that includes an onsite audit
- B. The Data Security Standards (DSS) framework should be used to scope the assessment
- C. The Self-Assessment Questionnaire (SAQ) provides independent testing of controls
- D. A System and Organization Controls (SOC) report is sufficient if the report addresses the same location
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Cardholder Data Environment (CDE) is the part of the network that stores, processes, or transmits cardholder data or sensitive authentication data, as well as any connected or security-impacting systems123. The CDE is subject to the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), which is a set of requirements and guidelines for ensuring the security and compliance of payment card transactions123.
The PCI DSS defines various artifacts that are reviewed when assessing the CDE, such as:
* The Data Security Standards (DSS) framework: This is the document that specifies the 12 high-level requirements and the corresponding sub-requirements and testing procedures for PCI DSS compliance123. The DSS framework should be used to scope the assessment, meaning to identify and document the systems and components that are in scope for PCI DSS, as well as the applicable requirements and controls for each system and component123. Therefore, option A is a true statement regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the CDE.
* The Report on Compliance (ROC): This is the report that provides the assessment results completed by a qualified security assessor (QSA) that includes an onsite audit of the CDE123. The ROC is a detailed and comprehensive document that validates the organization's compliance status and identifies any gaps or deficiencies that need to be remediated123. The ROC is required for merchants and service providers that process more than 6 million transactions annually, or that have suffered a breach or been compromised in the past year123. Therefore, option B is a true statement regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the CDE.
* The Self-Assessment Questionnaire (SAQ): This is a questionnaire that provides a validation tool for merchants and service providers that are not required to submit a ROC123. The SAQ is a self-assessment tool that allows the organization to evaluate its own compliance status and identify any gaps or deficiencies that need to be remediated123. The SAQ does not provide independent testing of controls, as it is based on the organization's self-reported answers and evidence123. Therefore, option C is a false statement regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the CDE.
* A System and Organization Controls (SOC) report: This is a report that provides an independent audit of the internal controls and processes of a service organization, such as a cloud provider, a data center, or a payment processor45. The SOC report is not specific to PCI DSS, but rather to other standards and frameworks, such as SOC 1 (based on SSAE 18), SOC 2 (based on Trust Services Criteria), or SOC 3 (based on SOC 2)45. A SOC report is not sufficient to demonstrate PCI DSS compliance, as it may not cover all the requirements and controls of the PCI DSS, or it may not address the same location or scope as the CDE123. Therefore, option D is a false statement regarding artifacts reviewed when assessing the CDE.
References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
* 1: PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide
* 2: PCI DSS FAQs
* 3: PCI DSS Glossary
* 4: What is a SOC report?
* 5: SOC Reports: What They Are, and Why They Matter
NEW QUESTION # 172
During a contract review, a manager notices that the remediation actions for security breaches are not specified. What should be the manager's immediate action?
- A. Recommend amendments to explicitly include remediation actions and penalties.
- B. Wait until a breach occurs to determine if remediation steps are necessary.
- C. Assess whether the existing clauses are sufficient without remediation specifics.
- D. Consult with other managers to decide if remediation actions need to be defined.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If a contract lacks specific clauses on remediation actions for security breaches, the immediate action should be to recommend amendments to include these details explicitly. This ensures that both parties are clear on the steps to be taken post-incident and the penalties for non-compliance, which is crucial for effective risk management and recovery.
NEW QUESTION # 173
During the contract negotiation process for a new vendor, the vendor states they have legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes. However, your company policy requires data return or destruction at contract termination. Which statement provides the BEST approach to address this conflict?
- A. Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination
- B. Conduct an assessment of the vendor's data governance and records management program
- C. Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier
- D. Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best approach to address the conflict between the vendor's legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes and the company's policy to require data return or destruction at contract termination is A. Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination. This approach recognizes that the vendor may have valid reasons to retain some data for a certain period of time, and that the company may have flexibility to grant exceptions to its policy under certain circumstances. However, this approach also ensures that the company maintains oversight and control over the data that the vendor retains, and that the vendor continues to comply with the data safeguarding obligations, such as encryption, access control, audit, and breach notification, until the data is returned or destroyed. This approach balances the interests and risks of both parties, and minimizes the potential for data breaches, misuse, or loss.
The other approaches are not the best ways to address the conflict, as they may create more problems or risks for either party. B. Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier. This approach does not resolve the conflict, but rather shifts the responsibility to the company to manage the increased risk of the vendor retaining the data. Changing the risk rating may also affect the contract terms, such as pricing, service level agreements, or liability clauses, and may require renegotiation or termination of the contract. C. Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception. This approach is too rigid and may not be feasible or reasonable for the vendor, especially if they have legal obligations to retain the data. This approach may also damage the relationship and trust between the parties, and may lead to disputes or litigation. D. Conduct an assessment of the vendor's data governance and records management program. This approach is too time-consuming and costly, and may not be necessary or relevant for the conflict. Conducting an assessment may provide some assurance about the vendor's data practices, but it does not address the underlying issue of the conflicting data retention requirements. Moreover, conducting an assessment may not be possible or appropriate during the contract negotiation process, as it may require access to the vendor's systems, data, or personnel. References:
* : Best Practices for Data Destruction - ed
* : CHALLENGES AND RISKS INVOLVED WITH DATA RETENTION - DataOlogie
* : Third-Party Risk Management: Final Interagency Guidance
* : Ensuring Data Protection for Third Parties: Best Practices | UpGuard Blog
NEW QUESTION # 174
Describe a scenario where failure to update a risk register leads to an oversight in risk management.
- A. New mitigation strategies are implemented, but lack of documentation causes repeated mistakes.
- B. Vendor non-compliance is detected, but the risk register is not consulted, allowing issues to escalate.
- C. A critical vendor risk increases due to external changes, but the outdated register leads to inadequate response and a breach.
- D. A risk deemed low priority escalates unexpectedly, but no contingency plans are in place due to poor record-keeping.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a risk register is not updated regularly, it may not reflect the current risk landscape, leading to mismanagement. For example, an increase in vendor risk due to external changes, if not updated, could result in the organization being unprepared and vulnerable to breaches.
NEW QUESTION # 175
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